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Were slaves in Ancient times actually treated as commodities? I've seen somewhere that this was a phenomenon of 16th century European slave trade but not in Ancient times, but I can't recall where. — Comrade FelipeForte (talk) 20:04, 10 August 2021 (UTC)
- I'm not familiar with the answer to this, but English wikipedia (the cited source being an American university study) seems to indicate that chattel slavery (thus, "owned" humans) was common throughout history. Although the question of "commodification" of humans might be a more complex one, i.e. inheritance rights, buying and selling on markets, etc. --Comrade Jucheguevara (talk)